HW5

Here is Max's Fourier Property:

${ℱ}[cos(w_{0}t)g(t)]$
Recall $w_0=2\pi f_0$, so ${ℱ}[cos(w_{0}t)g(t)]={ℱ}[cos(2\pi f_{0}t)g(t)]=\underset{-\mathrm{\infty }}{\overset{\mathrm{\infty }}{\int }}cos(2\pi f_{0}t)g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt$
Also recall $cos(\theta )=\frac{1}{2}(e^{j\theta }+e^{-j\theta })$,so $\underset{-\mathrm{\infty }}{\overset{\mathrm{\infty }}{\int }}cos(2\pi f_{0}t)g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt=\underset{-\mathrm{\infty }}{\overset{\mathrm{\infty }}{\int }}\frac{1}{2}[e^{j2\pi f_{0}t}+e^{-j2\pi f_{0}t}]g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt$
Now $\underset{-\mathrm{\infty }}{\overset{\mathrm{\infty }}{\int }}\frac{1}{2}[e^{j2\pi f_{0}t}+e^{-j2\pi f_{0}t}]g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt=\frac{1}{2}\underset{-\mathrm{\infty }}{\overset{\mathrm{\infty }}{\int }}{e}^{-j2\pi (f-f_0)t}g(t)dt+\frac{1}{2}\underset{-\mathrm{\infty }}{\overset{\mathrm{\infty }}{\int }}{e}^{-j2\pi (f+f_0)t}g(t)dt=\frac{1}{2}G(f-f_0)+\frac{1}{2}G(f+f_0)$
So ${ℱ}[cos(w_{0}t)g(t)]=\frac{1}{2}[G(f-f_0)+G(f+f_0)]$

After reviewing the property both the math and the logical progression are valid. Therefore I deem this property to be true. -Joshua Sarris.