HW5

Here is Max's Fourier Property (found here):

${\mathcal {F}}[cos(w_{0}t)g(t)]\!$
Recall $w_{0}=2\pi f_{0}\!$, so ${\mathcal {F}}[cos(w_{0}t)g(t)]={\mathcal {F}}[cos(2\pi f_{0}t)g(t)]=\int _{-\infty }^{\infty }cos(2\pi f_{0}t)g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt\!$
Also recall $cos(\theta )={\frac {1}{2}}(e^{j\theta }+e^{-j\theta })\!$,so $\int _{-\infty }^{\infty }cos(2\pi f_{0}t)g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt=\int _{-\infty }^{\infty }{\frac {1}{2}}[e^{j2\pi f_{0}t}+e^{-j2\pi f_{0}t}]g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt\!$
Now $\int _{-\infty }^{\infty }{\frac {1}{2}}[e^{j2\pi f_{0}t}+e^{-j2\pi f_{0}t}]g(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}dt={\frac {1}{2}}\int _{-\infty }^{\infty }e^{-j2\pi (f-f_{0})t}g(t)dt+{\frac {1}{2}}\int _{-\infty }^{\infty }e^{-j2\pi (f+f_{0})t}g(t)dt={\frac {1}{2}}G(f-f_{0})+{\frac {1}{2}}G(f+f_{0})\!$
So ${\mathcal {F}}[cos(w_{0}t)g(t)]={\frac {1}{2}}[G(f-f_{0})+G(f+f_{0})]\!$

After reviewing the property both the math and the logical progression are valid. Therefore I deem this property to be true. -Joshua Sarris.